SwordsMaster
11-19-2009, 04:02
In honesty I failed to see an appropriate thread to contribute this into: The evolution thread seemed like an obvious choice, but religious debate had taken over that conversation, SFTS' Texas thread in the frontroom was going to be my next option but that one seemed firmly focused on geographically subjective urban preference.
So here comes more (http://www.star-telegram.com/804/story/1770189.html) of Texas.
The amendment, approved by the Texas Legislature and overwhelmingly ratified by Texas voters, declares that "marriage in this state shall consist only of the union of one man and one woman." But the trouble-making phrase, as Radnofsky sees it, is Subsection B, which declares:
"This state or a political subdivision of this state may not create or recognize any legal status identical or similar to marriage."
Obviously deficient use of the language? An unconscious collective slip of the plume? Lack of dictionaries available to the lawmakers?
The definition of identical states: 'Exactly equal and alike.' Which could include all marriages in the good state. Which would give the whole law a certain amount of comedic irony.
An succulent twist is included:
In October, Dallas District Judge Tena Callahan ruled that the same-sex marriage ban is unconstitutional because it stands in the way of gay divorce. Abbott is appealing the ruling, which came in a divorce petition involving two men who were married in Massachusetts in 2006.
It seems unavoidable that texan lawmakers will have to modify this particular text.
The broader question, of course, is: if same sex marriage is allowed in some states, but not in others, and yet recognised by the federal government as legal, is it really sensible and enforceable by the rejecting states to fail to recognise it?
It seems a little like China not recognising independent Taiwan and yet unable to control its actions, and having the live with that.
What are the Org's thoughts?
So here comes more (http://www.star-telegram.com/804/story/1770189.html) of Texas.
The amendment, approved by the Texas Legislature and overwhelmingly ratified by Texas voters, declares that "marriage in this state shall consist only of the union of one man and one woman." But the trouble-making phrase, as Radnofsky sees it, is Subsection B, which declares:
"This state or a political subdivision of this state may not create or recognize any legal status identical or similar to marriage."
Obviously deficient use of the language? An unconscious collective slip of the plume? Lack of dictionaries available to the lawmakers?
The definition of identical states: 'Exactly equal and alike.' Which could include all marriages in the good state. Which would give the whole law a certain amount of comedic irony.
An succulent twist is included:
In October, Dallas District Judge Tena Callahan ruled that the same-sex marriage ban is unconstitutional because it stands in the way of gay divorce. Abbott is appealing the ruling, which came in a divorce petition involving two men who were married in Massachusetts in 2006.
It seems unavoidable that texan lawmakers will have to modify this particular text.
The broader question, of course, is: if same sex marriage is allowed in some states, but not in others, and yet recognised by the federal government as legal, is it really sensible and enforceable by the rejecting states to fail to recognise it?
It seems a little like China not recognising independent Taiwan and yet unable to control its actions, and having the live with that.
What are the Org's thoughts?