Doug-Thompson
08-05-2003, 20:23
Suppose your kingdom had a bunch of corrupt governors in it, but it was easier and cheaper to tolerate them than replace them.
Does your ruler still gain virtues as readily, and only gain vices at the normal rate?
A ruler who tolerates widespread corruption would seem to be less likely to gain virtue and more likely to acquire vices, but is that part of the programming? Is there any way to tell?
Does your ruler still gain virtues as readily, and only gain vices at the normal rate?
A ruler who tolerates widespread corruption would seem to be less likely to gain virtue and more likely to acquire vices, but is that part of the programming? Is there any way to tell?