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discovery1
11-22-2003, 01:52
In Shakespeare's Macbeth in Act I, Sc 2 line 13 it seems to give the impression that the Scots used kerns and Gallowglasses. I don't know a bout kerns, but I do think that Gallowglasses were Irish weapons. If this was the case, then why are the Scots using them not Claymores? I know that the Scots likely emmigrated from Ireland, but Macbeth seems a little late for that to explain it. I think the story takes place sometime in Edward the Confessors reign(1042-66 AD) since Act 5, sc 3 lines 141-45 seem to indicate that the king was very pious, although I think that many English kings were in the miracle touch business. Although, the Viking attack that is fought off before the play begins may indicate otherwise. Any help would be appreciated.

mercian billman
11-22-2003, 05:05
Im reading Macbeth right now in my english class http://www.totalwar.org/forum/non-cgi/emoticons/smile.gif

Gallowglasses and Kerns were both used by the Irish, don't know when exactly they started using them though.

Macbeth reigned from 1040-1057

Hope this helps

lanky316
11-22-2003, 14:21
There's also a mention of Spurs early on, something that wasn't particularly used in Britain let alone Scotland at the time of the play taking place.

Brother Derfel
11-22-2003, 14:29
Don't trust Shakespear, he was not a Historian he was a play write. My best advice is to ignore everything he says...