View Full Version : skip-pee-I or sip-pee-i
I was talking to a professor of old testament studies and Middle eastern history last night , this guy is a Language and history expert he knows all these ancient languages cueform and stuff but he told me that the Scipii is pronounced sip-pee-i not skip-pee-i is this one of those things you Britons just say differently from Americans?
Pellinor
11-05-2004, 16:39
I was talking to a professor of old testament studies and Middle eastern history last night , this guy is a Language and history expert he knows all these ancient languages cueform and stuff but he told me that the Scipii is pronounced sip-pee-i not skip-pee-i is this one of those things you Britons just say differently from Americans?
I think it's skip-ee-oh-nays really, but we'll let that pass.
In Classical latin you normally pronounce all the letters, and "c" is like a moder "k", so it is indeed skip-ee-ee or skip-ee-eye (tastes vary - see below).
Mediaeval and Church latin moved away from that, and "c" became a softer "ch" sound. It also tends more to "i" being pronouces as a long "eye" rather than the shorter "ee" of classical latin. That would make it more like ship-ee-eye, or possibly s-ship-ee-eye (pronouncing the initial "s" separately).
If he's a Bible scholar his view is probably coloured by Church pronunciation.
Modern pronunciation tends to more or less ignore "c" after "s", leading to sip-ee-eye - softened even further.
It's all rather fluid and there's no real consensus, excpet in that I'm right and everyone else is wrong ~D
Oh and it's the Americans that say things differently, not the British. ~;)
Cheers,
Pell.R.
It's prounounced see-mi-pee-pee-i
Actually, no one's really sure how the Romans pronounced their Latin.
The " 'c' pronounced as 'k' " argument started with German historians of 19th century and firmly established itself as the the norm. However recently, many other historians are coming up with new argumens that the "German method" may be wrong, and the "Italian method" ( 'c' pronounced as 'ts'/'ch' ) may be how the Romans actually pronounced their Latin.
As for the German method, it is usually how its taught in most areas of the world, and historical evidence of foreign representation of the pronunciation makes a strong argument(ie. the Egyptian cartuches of Caesar is spelled as 'ka-e-sar', not 'che-sar').
However the Italian method also has some powerful arguments owing to the fact that the Roman Catholic is the only surviving organization from the days of Rome, and the modern Italian which has very close relations with ancient Latin, also pronounce 'c' as 'ch'.
So be it Chi-che-ro or Ki-ke-ro, or be it Ver-jil-ius or Ver-gheel-ius, its usually a question of where you are taught Latin nowadays ~:)
Medieval Assassin
11-07-2004, 00:27
In passion of the christ, they pronounce l ceaser: KaI-sur...
Samurai Waki
11-08-2004, 01:46
As stated above, the German method is the best form of latin we know. The c is pronounced like a k, and the two iis are pronounced ae(or eye). On a further note the Julii are wrong as it should be pronounced Iulii as Js are not even in the latin alphabet and have no pronunciation.
Medieval Assassin
11-08-2004, 02:51
That interesting
The Iulii are not friends of the Kaisurrr!
I'd say sci-pii (rhymes with sci-fi). But of course, that's not historically accurate in the slightest, and I'm bad at prounounciation.
I like the accent I've heard people being taught for Latin. It's this floaty, wussy kind of thing, like your balls have retracted into your body or something.
I can't imagine this entire nation of conquering bastards incapable of the concept of surrender, who went about slaughtering and pillaging at the end of a really vicious stabby weapon, sounding like an effeminate angel.
"Surrender to Rome!"
"Um....could you bring your most butch soldier over to offer the terms? I want to maintain at least some personal dignity and manhood surrendering to you lot."
Samurai Waki
11-13-2004, 00:13
Funny thing you mentioned Khorak, considering that Charlemagne(by most accounts) had such a high sqeaky voice that it made most of his men frown and women blush. So, given that, most Roman men probably were either tenors or altos. However, back then, it was just one more reason to seperate themselves from barbarian cultures who most likely had a baritone or bass voice. Well, my 2 cents anyway.
Axeknight
11-13-2004, 00:47
We're taught to say it 'Skippy-eye', but then our Latin teacher is RC, and every so often he slips into church Latin 'Si-pea-eye'
As to no J in Latin, is it 'You-ley-us or 'Eye-oo-ley-us'?
I think it's EE-oo-lee-us, but the way it runs together Yoo-lee-us would probably work.
Sin Qua Non
11-13-2004, 02:29
I can't imagine this entire nation of conquering bastards incapable of the concept of surrender, who went about slaughtering and pillaging at the end of a really vicious stabby weapon, sounding like an effeminate angel.
Well, your theory would explain the Roman voice acting.
The day is AIIIURRRRS! :kid:
Well, your theory would explain the Roman voice acting.
yeah, they probably spent far too long watching reruns of "Carry On Cleopatra". ~;)
Samurai Waki
11-13-2004, 05:33
well, you know what the run of the mill computer nerd sounds like...end of discussion. ~D
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