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Originally Posted by
Maion Maroneios
Not necessarily. A feudal society fives peasants a sense of protection, plus let's not forget Macedonian societies where very xenophobic. At least a lot, preferring to work their own lands instead of having slaves do the work, not that they didn't have slaves of course.
Erm, yeah. AFAIK while they generally put up with it well enough (as long as the barons weren't total assholes), feudal peasantry rarely if ever actually much liked the arrangement. It did after all rather directly put them under the thumb of the aristocracy, nevermind now if outright serfdom was involved (dunno if it was in the Macs' case).
However, the point is more how the "agrarian middle class" that more or less dominated the society and culture of the southern poleis viewed the matter; and AFAIK free, nevermind landowning, peasantry (which the old "hoplite class" was) has always tended to seriously abhor feudalism.
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Now a 'free' democratic polis had more problems with it's inhabitants than an agricultural society, believe me. The expectations are always too high, you see.
The last I heard the southern poleis were pretty agrarian too (the old hoplites were basically upper peasantry), but anyway. Please extrapolate.
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Plus, more clever people (ie intellectuals) always means a greater possibility of rebellion.
Wut ? Ever heard of peasant revolts ? More educati just means more in the way of weird new ideas potentially troublesome for rulers, not that the populace is actually interested in overthrowing the current regime (doubly so, obviously, if the polis in question happens to be under sufficiently democratic management that said populace - or the parts of it of any real consequence anyway - are that regime...). The latter requires sufficient dissatisfication with the current situation, and relatively prosperous independent peasantry and burghers tend to on the whole be a more content bunch than the normally baseline grumbling feudal tenants. (The hoi polloi of the underclass, being of little martial, economical and hence political weight, naturally don't count for much here...)
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Certainly the Hellenic poleis did interfere with Macedonian politics, mainly because of the timber that the region produced that interested the southern Hellenes. As you see, it's economic reasons again:tongue:
My point exactly. The motivation is there already, all that is required is the ability to actually act on it. Suitable handwave excuses to legitimise the matter should not be too hard to come by, doubly so given the unfriendly relations between the Macs and the southern cities since Philip's days...
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As for them rebelling, it's true. A free Hellenic polis had three main goals, with the most important of them all being Autonomy. No Autonomy equals no city-state. So whoever would conquer them, even their closest relatives ethnical-wise, they would revolt.
Right. And since the Antigonids had for a while been more or less the major threat to that autonomy as a whole, in the case of the poleis managing to stick together for fun & profit (the assumption made in EB) and actually mustering enough power to have a genuine shot at removing that threat more or less for good (a necessary precondition for the OP's concern to matter)...
Stick the place under type 3 or 4 gov't to represent installing reasonably sympathetic puppet regimes and client-kings or something. Doesn't seem like much of a stretch of credibility, that - didn't the more powerful poleis commonly do something similar all over the place during their heydays, anyway ?