Originally Posted by EatYerGreens
We really need a knowledgable Muslim on the forum, to sort this one out!
You have to distinguish between religious strictures, as set out in the Koran (sp?) and mere 'cultural disapproval' of drinking, perhaps written into Civil Law, which would have been arrived at after generations of observing the deleterious effects of chronic drinking.
I get the impression that Muslims have, historically, been extremely resistant to changes in the wording of the Koran and wouldn't have made 'revisionist' changes to it, even if there was a strong motivation to do so. In other words, if it wasn't in there to start with, I don't think they'll have added it in later.
Also, by way of a sidebar, the spread of Arabic languages probably means the Koran hasn't suffered the kind of mis-translation alterations that certain parts of the Christian Bible are thought to have suffered from, where actual meanings of sentences have subtly changed where a single word had no precise equivalent in the secondary language. The resultant conflicting interpretations have been the source of arguments ever since. I think what we have now went from Aramaic (ancient Hebrew), through Greek, to Latin and then into various nation's languages in the later middle ages.