(*sigh*) …Frosty Frosty
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by Frostwulf
…Romans>Germans>Celts
…The Germans outclassed the Celts..regardless of the territory.
…The Celts were not as good as the Romans nor the Germans.
…I believe the German warrior to be superior.
…The Germans should be superior to them (Gauls).
I think ..if there was any weakening to the Celts during Caesar's time it was because of the Germans..
I'm not sure what your saying here.
? ~:) They’re your comments!
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Of course this is simplistic, these are generalities.
General-fantasies. You can’t seriously expect others to take you seriously when you grab select data, ignore chronology and regional variation and extrapolate it where and when you see fit to fit a personal belief / thinking.
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The greatest difficulties concern chronology and regional variation. To imply that any generalized description has universal application is evident nonsense (The Ancient Celts, Warfare and Society, p92, Barry Cunliffe).
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“It is not surprising that they (Gauls) are still being reinvented at this time because, in our sad and sorry contemporary world, people still want a quick fix because people, in the quest for truth and meaning in life, which seems the perennial human drive, prefer simple answers. It is easier to accept the cosy pictures than ponder the uncomfortable realities…” - (Dr Peter Berresford Ellis).
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This is very much the same way in which Europeans considered the whole of America to be inhabited by “Indians”. In locating the Celts we should ignore such generic usages: Celts, Germans…and perhaps others which no longer exist. (The Celts; Origins, Myths and Inventions, Locating the Celts, p105, John Collins).
Again in principle..
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(We run the)… risk of turning an abstract set of material markers, which we have ourselves selected, into a historically real group of humans to which we then attribute a collective identity or ascribe collective value. (Rome’s Gothic Wars, Archaeology, Identity and Ethnicity, p62, Michael Kulikowski)
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by Geoffrey S
What indications do you have that Germanic warfare was that stagnant? To me that sounds like equating the Marian legions to the legions of 270 bc.
Why is there reason to think that they would be any different?
:wall:
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
Well they may have been bi-lingual and spoken German (we don’t know) but they definitely had Celtic customs, culture and tongue. Further, the Eburones (‘yew people’) were not Belgae but rather (along with the Treveri, Levaci, Condrusi, Caeroesi, Paemani, Segni and Ceutrones), remnants of the Moselle Celts.
…the authors I have read say that these tribes are Belgae.... Ill make the claim, the Belgae were .. descended from the Germans.
….Goldsworthy's specialty is Roman warfare, Warry and Connoly is warfare for both the Greeks and Romans. What else could you want, you have the archaeologists and the historians that deal with this area and time frame.
? To date you have only given indication that you have read or part-read two books that specialise on the Celts. Could be good to look at a few quotes from the legends in the field? Few better than Powell.
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“Caesar also learnt that the Belgae, in earlier times, had themselves come from beyond the Rhine. Modern archaeological research supports the tradition as to the Rhenine, or trans-Rhenine, origins of these peoples. (The Celts, The Celtic Survival, 190 T.G.E Powell)
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It is along the Rhine that the use of the name Germani is really important, and the archaeological evidence for Celtic settlement east of the river, together with the Celtic topographical names that survive as far east as the Weser, and even the lower Elbe, combine with the observed characteristics of the Belgae, the Treveri, amongst others, to suggest that Germani was originally a Celtic tribe name which perhaps, in former days, had achieved a suzerain position. From the 2nd C BC, it is clear that the name began being used indiscriminantely for any intruders coming into Gaul from across the Rhine. (The Celts, The Celtic Survival, 191 T.G.E Powell)
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
The Belgae as you have said did have a Celtic culture.
And!?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by Glewas
(“Unskilled”) - Why would Caesar describe these Celtic combatants, who come from what is generally accepted as a "warrior culture" in which glory and valor in battle is highly regarded, as such? Could it be that the Celts were fielding young men who had yet seen battle or at least seen very little? If so... then why?
My version has "unskilled barbarians" as well.
And!? .... horses and water ..and all that.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by the_handsome_viking
And there was formerly a time when the Gauls excelled the Germans in prowess, and waged war on them offensively..( De Bello Gallico 6.24)
I'm going to do some supposition here and really don't have much to back this up with.. I just think the Romans and the Germans were tougher.
By all means “just think” away, but it’s not exactly a convincing argument
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Why didn't the (Germani) raid the (Gallic) land earlier? It seems to me to be a minor Volkerwanderung with the Germanic tribes slowly moving forward.
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The methodological problem is of long standing. In the early years of archaeology’s development as a scientific discipline, it was normal to understand cultural changes as the result of one tribe or people (Germani) conquering or displacing another (Celtoi) and replacing the previous material culture with a new one of their own. This interpretative paradigm goes back to the nationalist scholarship of the Volk (Rome’s Gothic Wars, p64-65, Michael Kulikowski)
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In the later half of the eighteenth century, Romanticism became the reigning intellectual paradigm for German-speaking thinkers and artists. Romantic ideals about the intrinsic qualities of individuals and whole peoples helped to articulate a sense of belonging and identity in German-speaking lands. For that reason, Romantic ideology was an inextricable part of German nationalism throughout the eighteenth and nineteenth centuries. (Rome’s Gothic Wars, Romanticism and the Rise of Modern Scholarship, p45 Michael Kulikowski)
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The Romantic ideal of the German volk helped provide a conceptual framework for the political unification of German-speaking lands that was brought about by Otto von Bismark in 1871. With the creation of a united Germany, the study of a German national past became even more important.
Nazi foreign policy made much of the purity of the German race rooted in the very remote past. The wide distribution of Germans across the European continent could justify the conquest of modern Germany’s neighbours as a ‘reconquest’ of the former lands of the German volk. (Rome’s Gothic Wars, The Volk and Philology, p47, Michael Kulikowski)
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
And the Transalpine Gauls were defeating the Romans as well (before the civil war)..even as late as 63 BC. Your point?
My point is the same as it always has been.
Ah yes, the superior Germanic master race and their innate martial superiority. All we need now is some credible supportive evidence for this romantic ideal.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
What battle are you referring to in 63 BC?
Three battles in fact. Catugnatos and his Allobroges defeated a Roman army led by Manlius Lentius at the Battle of Valence and then again at the Battle of the Isere, in which “His (Lentius’) army would have been wiped out but for a sudden storm which arose and hindred the attack”. Lentius fled and was able to apparently re-equipped his army with astonishing speed, drawing from the considerable reserves used to garrison various departments. The Allobroges were finally crushed between Lentius’ army and another huge force commanded by the Governor of Gallia Narbonesis, Gaius pomptinus. The Gauls / Allobroges, not able to make good the loss of their warrior elite surrendered.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
“The Germans were not superior, then or more recently. Though they clearly were tough soldiers..” – (Dr Simon James PhD BSc FSA, Tuesday 11th September 2007, University of Leicester, UK)
I cannot consider this as anything relevant because it cannot be proven with any reasonable effort.
“reasonable effort” eh? ..thank god for expediency. My friend, if you truly believe me to be a lier, you could contact Leicester University.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
I quote others because these authors are credible.
So you say.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
You use yourself as a reference and try to interpret the citations of Dr. James to fit your claims.
Ok, how would you interpret “The Germans were not superior, then or more recently”?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Even if I were to consider it as evidence I would have to disagree with Dr. James and go with … Goldsworthy
So much for defending this “excellent information by a well known and highly thought of Archaeologist”.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
As for being selective I would have to disagree with you as I have tried to find differing views from the authors I have read.
And how's that working for you?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
There is no difference except I use credible authors and cite their works.
Apparently only when it suits
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
You keep ignoring James…
I do?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Why do you think I use authors for my points
At a loss ….positional expediency?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
I notice a propensity to dismiss my comments …
Why should I believe what your saying? I'm not going to believe you…
~:) At least I'm not alone
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
I would have to.. go with what Goldsworthy says because of his specialty and because of the events that happened during this time period.
Goldsworthy’s specialty is Rome, not the Celts.
The truth of the matter is you’ll go with anything that can be applied to support your hypothesis of an innately superior Germanic master race.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by Frostwulf
…Romans>Germans>Celts
…The Germans outclassed the Celts..regardless of the territory.
…The Celts were not as good as the Romans nor the Germans.
…I believe the German warrior to be superior.
…The Germans should be superior to them (Gauls).
… If there was any weakening to the Celts during Caesar's time it was because of the Germans
Im basing this on mostly Goldsworthy…
All that from:
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“Throughout the Gallic campaigns German warriors consistently defeated their Gallic counterparts, each success adding to their fierce reputation”. Goldsworthy “Caesar” -Pg.274
I’m sorry, but this hypothesis is just wishful “thinking”
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Its not just me claiming this.
Unless you count the writings of the German nationalists and Romanticists, I’m afraid it is.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
(‘Indo-European History’, ‘La Tene Gaul’, XVI, 5.63, Univerzita Karlova v Praze)
I couldn't find it. I will have to dismiss it.
I know I should be surprised …
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
The German cavalry of Caesar's time were superior to that of the Gauls as shown by the events of this time.
Yes during Caesar’s time, how many times do we need to go over this!? Again strength is relative.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
The Germans of the Gallic war era simply were superior to their Gallic counterparts.
Hallelujah! Yes, the perceived strength was a recent relativity!?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
I will repeat myself and say yes Goldsworthy is saying in the Gallic campaigns, but that’s because his subject was Caesar and his time frame.
Exactly! So if you are going to quote an author, please do so in the context they intended. Don’t go taking random data, extrapolating that to any given anachronistic period in order to serve a preconceived agenda.. and expect us to see the “logic” in it.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
The Gauls didn’t engage in total war! They fought until one side had wiped out the others forces / retainers or had gained a significant advantage in such, hostages exchanged and homage paid. The problem for the Gauls was that the Civil war in question was a wide reaching conflict of large evenly balanced forces, so what followed was an attrition of the aforementioned retainers / warrior elite until the balance started to shift and the Sequani took over the leadership of the Southern alliance. The Germans were brought in, at great shame to the Sequani, to even up the numbers. The Aedui confederacy, now bereft of fighters themselves, appealed to Rome.
Your trying to fit these things to fit your ideology and reading things into what these authors are saying.
Ironic
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
If there was such an internal conflict it would involve disruption in trade and damage to the surrounding area. "it was a rich and prosperous land-so means were evidently found for limiting the damage war could cause".
Positionally schizophrenic? You have already acknowledge that the Gauls didn’t wage total war, that they had “limiting factors”. Why are you now suggesting the opposite? ..that they did wage total war and therefore all aspects of society would be so affected?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
No, Caesar said that the aforementioned were “known as German tribes”. Known to whom? The ‘Marne’ tribes of central Gaul from which Caesar was getting his information. Why?, because the Marne Celts regarded the Moselle Celts, who happen to have had a thriving culture on the Rhine,.. as easterners / ‘Germans’ (1st C BC). Not too dissimilar to how the Allies of WWI / WWII referred to Germans as Huns.
Herwig Wolfram "The Roman Empire and its Germanic Peoples"-" Successful conquerors, whether they already spoke Germanic or not, crossed the Rhine and were called Germani by the Gauls. The name was used first by outsiders, and it remained so even after the Romans had taken it over from the Gauls ....etc etc" pg.4
I’m confused. Are you arguing with me now?
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It can be seen, as viewed by the Gauls, a geographical connotation would have been established so that, by the first century BC, any people coming west across the Rhine, whether Celts, or predatory strangers of still more remote origins (Germans), would naturally be dubbed “Germans” (The Celts, The Celtic Survival, 191 T.G.E Powell)
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Tacitus closes the second chapter with the interesting comment that the Germanic name was a relatively recent additional name that had developed from the specific name for a single tribe.
Which some claim was Celtic.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
He relates that the Tungri were the first to cross the Rhine on their push westward and were subsequently called Germani by the Gauls. The victories of the Tungri imparted such prestige to this name that it was also adopted by other tribes as a generic name.
By the time Tacitus was writing, the time of the Celts was all but over and the Germans were the new barbarians ‘at the gates’. His works the Agricola and Germania were intended to both praise his relation Agricola and rale against the corruption / decadence within Rome, so much was made of the noble savage / German.
Further, it is not unusual that peoples, in retrospect, would claim decent from a supposed heroic / mythical past to add to their prestige. Egyptian Pharaohs, Babylonian kings, etc etc came from the gods, as did the Romans (Mars) claiming decent through the Trojans, the Arverni (‘Dis Pater’) also through the Trojans, etc. Little wonder to find the defeated, subjugated and down trodden Gauls of the late 1st BC and first centuries Ad claiming German ancestry.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
Frosty, you aren’t even talking about the same people!!
Ignoring the fact that most of the inhabitants of northern Europe were not Celtic at all but rather remnants of the Urnfield and some cases Germanic peoples (most of which had long freed themselves from their Halstatt overlords). They didn’t have an ancient cookie cutting to pop out some sort of generic Celt.
It’s extremely naïve to compare the Germano-Celtic remnants of these northern Halstatt chiefdoms to the advanced powerful La Tene ‘D’ states of Gaul.
These are the same Celts who were moving about and invading elsewhere but being pushed back up north.
Sorry to burst your bubble…
Ok, again I state, you can’t lump everything together just because it fits better with your beliefs. There is no such thing as the “Timeless Celt”. One would have to be incredibly naïve to think otherwise.
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Using nineteenth century concepts, ..these ideas were developed by Gustav Kossinna and adopted by the Nazi party as a foundation of the concept of a German master race. Races were thought to have characteristic features such as religion, social structure, language, etc. this leads to racial stereo-typing and the idea that different sources from different places and different times can be collated to define the concept of the “timeless Celt”, an idea that still pervades most general books on the Celts. (The Celts; Origins, Myths and Inventions, Locating the Celts, p224, John Collins)
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
The Germans began reversing the Celts around 3rd century BC, wouldn't that put it in the La Tene B era?
Firstly, Geo-political demographics and culture varied greatly over time and space. Each area, people, tribe, etc would have geographically specific distinctions. Even the categorical nomenclature has been adapted to demonstrated the variations.
Thus, in the third century you have the area of Southern Gaul – “La Tene C”, Northern France – “Middle La Tene II & III”, Hunsrück-Eifel (Reinecke) – “La Tene A & B”, Switzerland – La Tene “Ic & Iia”, Baden Württemberg (Zürn) Halstatt D3 / La Tene A, Northern Plain – “Late Iron Age / Halstatt A & B”, Briton – “Early & Mid Iron Age”.
Secondly, notwithstanding the previous paragraph, I repeat, you’re NOT talking about the same peoples. You may as well start making claims about the Germans vs the forces of the United States of America.
Those peoples in northern Europe, whom the so-called Germani dealt with in the 3rd and early 2nd C BC had almost nothing in common with the La Tene D Gauls of France nor the La Tene B & C Gauls of southern Germany. In fact, La Tene culture never extended beyond the 51st parallel.
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(For all accounts), .. in terms of material culture, socio-economic structure, and language the inhabitants of the Northern European Plain differed from the Celtic communities further south, there was a wide zone between where one graded into the other.(The Ancient Celts, p237 Barry Cunliffe)
There was no Celtic wall that the Germans suddenly smashed through due to their innate superiority. In fact, by the time the ‘Germani’ began putting pressure on Celtic lands across the Rhine and in southern Germany, most of the Celtic colonies had already / previously disappeared, their states collapsed. To this day we don’t know why. We know that significant contingents of Volcae (Osi, Cotini, etc) migrated east to join their kin throughout eastern Europe .. even as far as the black sea. Some scholars claim regional disasters, some disease, some internal warfare fought over the increasing scale of trade with the south. All we know for sure is that dozens of major fortified sites and significant areas of population were suddenly abandoned. To date, only deposits of La Tene weaponry have been found dating to the period.
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The martial and cultural ascendancy of the Celts throughout the fifth to the second centuries BC, manifested archeologically in the La Tene culture, exerted a great influence on the remoter barbarians (Germani), lying to the north and east. (The Celts, The Celtic Survival, 192 T.G.E Powell)
The Germani, didn’t begin making an incursion into this area until the mid to late 2nd C BC.
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The trans-Rhenine aggressors of the first centuries BC and AD represent but an early phase in a movement that involved an ever-increasing element of Tuetonic-speaking peoples as they pressed forward from their earlier homelands that had previous lain north-eastwards of the Elbe.(The Celts, The Celtic Survival, 192 T.G.E Powell)
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During the second and first centuries BC, the Darcians and (later) certain of the so-called Germanic peoples began making territorial inroads on Celtic lands (The Ancient Celts, The Developed Celtic World, p221, Barry Cunliffe)
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Ill state again, the reason I put this down is from Psycho V saying the Celts were defeating the Germans for century's before. If thats the case why were the Germans displacing them, not to mention where is the evidence to support this.
Apparently in the material yet to be studied. ~:flirt:
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
I believe most slaves were acquired while raiding and the battles, but it doesn't seem to be in large numbers.
The reason is because it was still a relatively peaceful area. The raids consisted of small groups of men, and the battles would have been few. With the raids and few battles there would not have been many slaves taken…
No offence to your beliefs but I’m afraid Watchman is correct.
Whilst previously, slavery had only played a minor role within Gallic society, there was a huge increase in the slave trade (export south) at the end of the 2nd and begging of the 1st century BC. This just happens to coincide with the out-break of a major conflict between northern and southern tribes over the lucrative trade routs. The war you deny.
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By the beginning of the first century BC the reliance of the Roman economy on slave labour was considerable. One estimate is that in the early first century BC there were 300,000 Gallic slaves in Italy alone, a total which required to be topped up at a rate of 15,000 a year. (The Ancient Celts, The Developed Celtic World, p215, Barry Cunliffe)
Not the “small groups of men” taken in “raids” that you claim but rather implies a much more significant developement. The war you deny.
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After the defeat of Luernio’s son Bituitos by the Romans on the River Isere in 123 BC where he had been opposing the invasion of the Province, the Arverni lost their leading role (in Gaul). As Caesar says that by his time the control of Gaul was being contested by the Aedui and Sequani.(The Celts; Origins, Myths and Inventions, Archaeology of the Celts, p171, John Collins)
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The “unsual situation” of the first century BC ..suggests that it was likely due to the instability of the Celtic states brought into sharp focus by the sudden interest of the Roman world (Reduction of Arverni) in the affairs of its northern periphery (The Ancient Celts, Warfare and Society, p223, Barry Cunliffe)
Further, the material record bears this out. The huge increase in the trade of slaves happens to coincide with the huge increase in the trade of wine.
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They (Gauls) are extremely partial to wine and glut themselves with the unmixed wine brought in by merchants. Their desire makes them guzzle it and when they get drunk, they either fall into a stupor or become manic. For this reason many Italian merchants, with their usual love for money, regard the Celtic passion for wine as a source of treasure. They transport the wine by boat on the navigable rivers and by cart … and get an incredibly good price for it; for one amphora of wine they get a slave. (Hist 5.26 Diodorus Siculus)
Little wonder the Romans / merchants (and James) regarded Gaul as prosperous.
We have deposits of tens of thousands of distinctive Amphora of Dressel Type 1A & 1B dating to this period. Huge dumps like that found in Saone, Cabillonum (Chalon) testify to the significant increase in importation. Thus even in a war that would almost annihilate the warrior class, the precious wine was prized.
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Another factor (for Caesar’s conquest of Gaul), was surely economic. Gaul, as we have seen, provided Rome with an immensely valuable market (of) slaves. (The Ancient Celts, The Celts in Retreat, p239, Barry Cunliffe)
Caesar was to make his personal fortune from the slaves taken in his campaign.
The material record demonstrates other significant changes that took place in the period.
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In the late La Tene D1, around 120-100 BC most of the sites in the Grande Limagne (Auvergne) were abandoned, and three successive oppida were established (Corent, Gondole and Gergovie) (The Celts; Origins, Myths and Inventions, Archaeology of the Celts, p172, John Collins)
Another indicator of major conflict, change and attempt to protect the valuable trade in commodities. There is plenty of other evidence, but hey, why let facts get in the way of a good master race story.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Simon James-"The World of the Celts"-"Slavery existed, although on a smaller scale than in the Classical world; slaves may have been most important as export commodities." pg. 53
Yes, in Jame’s paragragh “The Shape of Society, The make-up of Celtic societies”, he again provides a general overview of Celtic society throughout history. More specifically in regards to slavery, he is talking about the use of slavery within Celtic society, suggesting that slavery’s real (most important) value lay in “export” / outside Celtic society / tuath. He is not making a statement about the scale of the slavery trade, but rather the retention / use of slaves within Celtic society. The slave trade of the 1st C BC was something different and new altogether for the Gauls.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
..why was it necessary for the Gauls .. to have to arm and train their armies anew on the arrival of Caesar? They were a mobilized militia because the warrior caste was all but wiped out previously, in the war you deny happened.
Venceslas Kruta-"The Celts"-"…cavalry totally replace the war-chariots ..blah blah blah." pg.110
Stephen Allen-"Lords of Battle, the World of the Celtic Warrior"-"The nature of Celtic warfare changed … to large conflicts between tribal confederations …A major consequence was the increasing importance of cavalry …blah blah blah." pg.83
Stephen Allen-"Lords of Battle, the World of the Celtic Warrior"-" By this period, the elite Gallic warriors who provided the urban aristocracies with their armed retainers were almost entirely cavalry…blah blah blah" pg.132
Aside from providing support for my argument, I fail to see what has this has got to do with the price of tea in China?
The quotes were saying that the
cavalry were the new elite warriors who were now the main defensive forces, not the tribal levies.
This was a time of relative peace therefore.
Cavalry = Peace? Those Huns, Alans, Bulgars, Mongols, etc etc were obviously the most peaceful persons on the planet! :laugh4:
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
The only ones that were really trained for the most part was the cavalry.
The only ones properly trained were the warrior elite, who were increasingly mounted from the second C BC on. Again, your point?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
The point I was making (which I have made all along), is that the Germans didn’t suddenly wake up one morning in 70 BC as this elite unstoppable force you claim is inferred by Caesar in the 1st C BC. You can’t extrapolate the relative strength of the Germans during Caesar’s War to those several hundred years prior.
You wrongly claim there was a "Devastating Civil War" ..there wasn't. The Celts were as strong as they had been since the 3rd century and before, possibly even better …
Is this “just” your thinking at play again or do you have something to back that up?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
Are you just making stuff up now? How did you get the “over extended, rolled off the field, spread out” bit?
I'll see if I can find the quote from Sidnell.
? My friend, if you are happy to dismiss quotes I provide even when references are provided, what should I make of these sort of comments?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
For the few examples given us of German troops during the 1st C BC (during Caesar’s war of conquest), you are quite happy play up, even make erroneous claims from events that (as you have even admitted) should never be used as supposed evidence. Eg. The Menapii.
I never made an erroneous claim, I said it was unfair to use it, and it was out of context for the situation.
“I never made..” ..? Ok Bill, time for a reality check. You made a claim that you had to retract because it was “unfair” and “out of context”, but that wasn’t an error? :yes:
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Erroneous would be claiming that Caesar's quote …was about a supposed "Devastating Celtic War" as opposed to what it really was, a 10 year war with the Germans. What about the duel with Virdomarus? How about the Celts defeating the Germans for centuries? These are erroneous statements.
You forgot the sky being blue and the earth round. :2thumbsup:
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
On the other hand, when I post… (merely to prove how preposterous it is to extrapolate isolated events devoid of context).you dismiss..
Again your way off on your examples. Your erroneous example of the 120,000 Germans (again something Ill address later) against Caesar, compared to your 80,000 Gauls
Again, you’ve missed the point entirely!
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
…which to this date have not told me which battle your talking about, and this is the third time Ill ask you, what battle are you talking about.
Gergovia, although it was apparently against 6 rather than 10 legions due to postings elsewhere.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
You love to repeatedly cite the example of the 800 but what about the others instances I have.Couldn’t we just as likely draw all sorts of strange conclusions / make all sorts of grandiose claims? Remember that 430,000 of these “superior” Germans (Usipetes and Tenctheri, to which the mighty 800 belonged) ran like girls when faced with 8 Roman legions.
Again misrepresented and ignorance of the facts.
Again missed the point!
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Caesar-"The Gallic War"-"Triple line of columns was formed, and the eight mile march was so speedily accomplished that Caesar reached the the enemy's camp before the Germans could have any inkling of what was toward".Book 4,14
And there you go …citing context now it’s suddenly relevant. Why hasn’t this worried you before… when it came to the Romans / Germans defeating the Gauls “most of the time”.
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Gallic armies successfully …(defeated Roman armies), but this was only possible when the Gauls had had enough time to muster their whole army along the likely route of Roman advance. Mustering a Gallic army and then deploying it for battle was a slow procedure, and it is notable that very often the (Gauls) were unable to form an army until the Romans had (already) attacked their territory …. (Roman Warfare, World Conquest, p96 Adrian Goldsworthy)
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
Yet we have several accounts on much smaller numbers of Gauls at least putting up a fight. The 92,000 Helvetii attacking 6 legions up hill and retiring in good order. Vercingetrix’s 80,000 Gauls being surprised by an assault of 10 legions and winning..etc etc Should we now assume that the Gauls were the master race / innately superior!? ..Of course not!
You do realize that the Gauls outnumbered the Romans in each of these cases… blah blah blah
You do realise that whether the Romans were outnumbered is a mute point when considering the relevance to my comment!? Or are you still claiming that Ariovistus fought Caesar with only 15,000 men?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Adrian Goldsworth-"Caesar:Life of a Colossus"-"The third line of cohorts …blah blah blah" pg.222
Adrian Goldsworth-"Caesar:Life of a Colossus"-"By this time the Gauls …blah blah blah" pg. 333
Adrian Goldsworth-"Caesar:Life of a Colossus"-"Caesar could do little … blah blah blah" pg.333
I can only assume that in the absence of argument, you hope to distract and confuse with huge amounts of irrelevant quotes.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
If you want to adopt Goldsworthy’s rationale then one would have acknowledge the same likelihood with your beloved 800 super Germans.
Yea, there was a difference. With the Helvetii, Caesars cavalry were routed and lost a few men, they were on unfavourable ground and betrayed by Dumnorix.
With the 800 they charged Caesar's cavalry and it was a set battle as more of Caesars cavalry showed up and joined the battle.
For starters, Caesar’s cavalry were also betrayed, by Ariovistus and his overtures of peace. Secondly, the mighty ‘800’ (even if Caesar is to believe on the numbers) ambushed the Gauls, experienced or not. Ceasar’s veteran legions ran at Gergovia, should we start claiming that Vercingetrix’s Gauls were all innately superior?
Further the Gauls were initially routed by this un-expected attack, not with the subsequent melee that followed. Ignoring the realities of warfare and the state at which the Gallic morale must have been at the time, it is amazing they returned to the fight at all. We have no account of any Germanic force of the period rallying once routed, so again.. should we confer on the Gauls an innate superiority.
It’s also worth mentioning that the Helvetii charged a force ten times their size (400/4000) whilst the Germans only three times their size (1,600/5000)… so again, are the Gauls innately superior? …of course not!
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
The Germans attacked whilst seeking peace! If you’re happy to accept “unfavourable ground” as evidence of an ambush then surely you would accept the surprise attack of the Germans as an ambush as well!?
As for the other accounts of Germanic cavalry in De Bello Gallico, there is nothing to suggest that they were anything other than an effective / experienced force of mercenaries. An elite force bought at a price that fought a weakened Gallic aristocracy long reduced by civil war.
Goldsworthy read the book and
may have….blah blah blah
Speculative hearsay. Your fishing.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
It never ceases to amaze me how some will only see what they want to see.
Why the bloody hell would Caesar try to calm his troops by telling them “Don’t worry about how the Germans fight! The Germans only managed to slaughter the Gauls because they slaughtered them previously”!?
It doesn’t make sense!
The comment only makes sense when one acknowledges the context, that the Gauls had been slaughtering each other and were “exhausted by a long war”. The war that you now partly deny
It doesn't make sense to you because your trying to make this text fit your claim of the supposedly "Devastating Civil War" when it has nothing at all to do with it.
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Caesar-"The Gallic War"… the Gauls had been tired out by the long duration of the war, Ariovistus, after he…"
You’ve merged the sentences to infer direct connection. You have to consider context my friend.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
He is talking of the battle of Magetobriga. He makes no mention of Gallic infighting at all in this, he is always referring to the battles with the Germans. He is saying that the Gauls were tired of waiting months for the Germans to emerge and fight them.
Here, I’ll hold your hand and walk you through it.
Caesar mentions the Gallic war in two sections:
1)
Quote:
“The Gauls (plural), …were divided into two parties. One dominated by the Aedui, the other by the Arverni. After a fierce struggle for supremacy, lasting many years, the Arverni and Sequani hired some German mercenaries to help them… and there are at present about a 120,000 of them were in the country (Gaul)…The Aedui and their satellite tribes had fought the Germans more than once, and had suffered disastrous defeats… These calamities had broken the supremacy which they formerly maintained in Gaul. (Germans seizing Aedui land) and in a few years time the whole population of Gaul would be expatriated…
….After a single victory over the united Gallic forces at Admagetobriga (61 BC), Arivistus has shown himself an arrogant and cruel tyrant…. Unless Caesar.. would help them, the Gauls (plural) must ..leave their homes, seek other dwelling places … (De Bello Gallico I.XXXI.X)
The points to note here is the fierce Gallic struggle for supremacy lasting many years, the Aedui fighting the German mercenaries more than once and a single victory over a united Gallic force at Admagetobriga
2)
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“Observing this state of affairs (fear of the Germans), Caesar summoned the centurions of every grade to a council, and began to severely reprimand them.
- Our countrymen faced this enemy in our father’s time (Cimbri / Teutones) …
- They faced them again more recently in Italy (Spartacus / “rebellious slaves”)
- Moreover these Germans are the same men whom the Helvetii often met in battle … and have generally beaten .. yet were not a match for our army
- If anyone is alarmed by the fact that the Germans have defeated the Gauls (plural) and put them to flight (Admagetobriga), he should inquire into the circumstances of that defeat. He will find that it happened at a time when the Gauls (plural) were exhausted by a long war
(De Bello Gallico I.XXXX.XIII)
The defeat of the Gauls at Admagetobriga was against a united Gallic force, it is not taking about the Aedui fighting the “Germans more than once”. It is a united pan-Gallic force involved in one major battle. These Gauls (plural ie not just the previously mentioned Aedui) had been exhausted by a “long war” / “fierce struggle for supremacy, lasting many years”.
Caesar then goes on and further stresses the point that even in this battle against exhausted Gauls, Ariovistus had to ambush this united Gallic force after they “broke up into scattered groups” His victory being due to “cunning strategy rather than the bravery (superiority) of his troops.”
If one studies the work in context and refrains from grabing select pieces, joining sentences, etc, one will have a better appreciation of the author’s intended meaning rather than that of the reader.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Caesar said the Gauls were worn out by the campaign with Ariovistus, then he attacked them as they dispersed.
He said no such thing.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
He is saying that the Gauls were tired of waiting .. for the Germans to emerge (from the marshes) and fight them.
Seriously, think about it :smash:
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Hoping to evict the unwelcome Germans, ..peoples headed by the Aedui, confronted Ariovistus in the field. The resulting battle was a display of the martial superiority of the (Germans).
Another flight of fancy I’m afraid. If you are referring to Admagetobriga, the battle was fought by a united Gallic force. There is no mention of the Aedui leading, in fact we are told that the Aedui had lost their leading position amongst the Gauls.
Your comment about the so-called display of “martial superiority” flies in the face of what Caesar states and I can only assume one’s imagination has got the better of them yet again.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Again the Germans waited for the Gauls to disperse before emerging to do battle with the remaining Gauls, therefore there were plenty of Gauls left.
? :inquisitive:
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
So the Helvetii beat the Germans and we(Romans) beat the Helvetii..basically you tell your troops how the Germans had been defeated by Romans, then you say the Germans are not very tough because they only fought weaklings.
Something like that :book:
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Caesar probably didn't know they (Helvetii) were most likely forced out by the Germans.
Shame you weren't there to help him
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by Erebus26
To be honest we have to blame Caesar himself for this whole argument about 'Gauls' and 'Germans'. He created the Rhine boundary so he could back to the senate and say that he had conquered the whole of Gaul.
I agree with this.
Yes, but this wasn’t the main reason for doing so. It was more a case of overstating (and in some cases fabricating) the German threat to Gaul and Rome so as to provide a casus belli for his Gallic campaign. Ensuring his tenure and support at home.
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“In the fourth book of his commentaries Caesar begins with a sketch of the “warlike” Germans, reminding his readers of the instability of the region…providing sufficient justification for his concern on behalf of the stability of Rome.” (The Ancient Celts, p242 Barry Cunliffe)
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
The vulnerability doesn't mention the "Devastating Civil War"! Why, because its and exaggerated event.
Hmm.. “exaggerated”? .. so you're acknowledging it now?
The supposed "Devastating Civil War", which I don't believe. I do deny the supposed "Devastating Civil War”
So what exactly is your position? The Gauls didn’t fight ? There was no major struggle between the Arverni and Aedui?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
As I have said ad naseum, there were several factors that lead to the Gallic demise not one issue only. You have to look at the big picture, remember my analogy of the White Elephant? Internal martial and political weakness, fiscal prosperity, centralisation of governance, external military and socio-economic pressure, both internal and external population pressures, etc etc all contributed.
Like the fall of most states / empires, one would be naïve to just to consider the most obvious. Did the western Roman empire fall because they could not stop the Germanic Master Race in 410 AD, no. Just like the Gauls, there were years of decline / political instability, civil war, etc etc that contributed.
You are claiming the Gallic warriors were weak (not experienced etc.) because they were devastated from a "Civil War" and are therefore not of the same caliber of the Celts of the 3rd century BC and before.
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Individually the Romans were better equipped and armoured than the majority of Celtic warriors, but there is little indication (from earlier periods) of the great superiority which Caesar’s troops in the first C BC would display against Gallic opponents. (Roman Warfare, World Conquest, p96 Adrian Goldsworthy)
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
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Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
Even your beloved Livy states that these groups had come into being due to internal pressures and turmoil.
Again he is saying these armies internally were
rarer then before.
Was that intentional? No he says that they were rarer before ie more common later in the period due to the changing nature of Gallic society and the increasing power / political hegemony that the various power bloke enjoyed (eg Arverni, Aedui, etc)
James is again providing a general overview that encompasses several hundred years of history. The point here is that he doesn’t state anything that supports your position that this significant Gallic war never occurred.
Goldsworthy makes exactly the same comment about Celtic society in the 3rd c BC as a prefix to his commentary on the first Punic war.
Quote:
(Celtic) Raiding and small scale warfare were endemic; battle less common but by no means unknown.(The Punic Wars, Opposing Sides, p25 Adrian Goldsworthy).
It’s worth noting that James also mentions that “conflicts ranged from great wars..to mere brigandage..etc”.
Quote:
Originally Posted by Frostwulf
He is not talking about tribal movements but movements of armies and those like the Gaesatae who were most likely a social escape valve.
Yes, for the excess warrior elite. In fact the Gallic warrior elite served as mercenaries throughout the ancient world, suddenly disappearing from the world stage at a time that happen to coincide with major internal turmoil in Transalpine Gaul, etc.
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As in other Indo-European societies, the Celts produced a warrior class or caste with their own rituals; they were professionals who sold their expertise to whoever would hire their services. Their role might be more quickly understood by comparing them with the Samurai - (The Druids, p28 Peter Berresford Ellis)
How do you think the forces of early feudal Japan would fair without Samurai?
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Caesar states plainly about the population, and for the time/era its abundant.
And your point? Either the Celts wage limited warfare (ie predominantly through the warrior class / elites) or they didn't. You can't have it both ways my friend.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
I never have said or claimed to have held Livy in any esteem.
Well, you were willing to ignore the commentary of world experts and instead adopt Livy’s bolox verbatim / as truth.
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Originally Posted by Frostwulf
Quote:
Originally Posted by Originally Posted by PSYCHO V
The problem is that your method of analysis appears to be completely dependant on the type of data, or should I say the interpretation one wishes to gain from the said data.
What do you base yours on?
I have a list of references posted around here somewhere. I’ve been fortunate enough to triple my library since then
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Originally Posted by Fraekae
In response to the statements that Celtic units are overpowered compared to the Germanic units, based on stats, I would like to object. At least partially. I took a look at the unit stats shown in the unit cards made by Arkatreides (Stickied topic, "Trading card style unit cards for offline use"). (Hopefully these are still correct for the current EB version, otherwise my whole post might be a load of BS :)
Using these cards I compared the celtic and germanic spear units. From the stats we can see that the celtic spear units are mostly weaker and more expensive than their germanic counterparts. This is true both before and after the first reforms.…..
Ah, back to the original subject matter of the thread. Completely agree. :2thumbsup:
...geez how long is this? ..way too much time better spent elsewhere me thinks..
my2bob