Re: Who gets to "impose morality"?
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When do the dead get a vote? In the Constitution? That's also absurd. To literally apply ithat line of thinking would require society as a whole to update its descisions every time there is a murder trial - because the past laws against murder could be made by someone already dead.
Do we know what a metaphor is? The dead do not literally get a vote, but when a decision is made because 'it's tradition' the dead are figuratively 'voting' through tradition.
You don't get what I'm saying. You should not be tied to the past, the thinking 'well yesterday we did it this way, we should always do it this way' is wrong. Saying that everytime there is a murder trial we need to rethink the laws is wrong, because right now people agree that killing each other is bad for reasons other than tradition. A better example would be that earlier in time, it was considered strange and even wrong for a woman to do anything but stay at home and raise a family, why? tradition, man work, woman cook. Is it good to keep life that way because tradition? Or should we say 'hey, why should things be this way, what if the man wants to raise the family and the woman wants to work. Let them do it.'
Re: Who gets to "impose morality"?
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Originally Posted by Don Corleone
No Steppe, you're not. You frequently say that people that have religious leanings shouldn't be allowed to engage in discourse on politics. I like you, a lot, and I respect a lot of your other viewpoints, but this sort of secular fundamentalism is every bit as intolerant as islamic or christian fundamentalism.
Ok, you've got me on that one. :bow:
Though it is unfair (and foolish) to try and ban religous folks from politics, I admit, the minority of nuts has gotten me paranoid towards religous peoples, in particular their politics.
