This is an excerpt from one of my textbooks obtained in a university class on English literature, topical author- Tolkien [it was the first year the class was offered, for the obvious reasons such a class would be controversal]:
"Orcs (the word is as far as I am concerned actually derived from Old English orc 'demon,' but only because of its phonetic suitability) are nowhere clearly stated to be of any particular origin" (Tolkien 177-178). The Letters of J.R.R. Tolkien. Edited by Humphrey Carpenter. Houghton Mifflin Co., 2000.
My objection is the comment that Tolkien's orcs are based on Latin, which he clearly says is not the case. He was a reputable scholar, so I'd like to see some evidence saying he was a liar or incorrect in his authority.

Originally Posted by
Philipvs Vallindervs Calicvla
Edit: In any case your objection seems to be against Orcs and Anglo-Saxons which doesn't have a direct bearing on Celts in the Baltic.
You're right- feel free to get back on the subject of how wrong the Celtic translation [dunno who did it] is (unless you can suppport it or have some other comment on the subject), rather than lauding Latin because of personal taste or historical influence. I have nothing to contribute on the subject since I have so little knowledge of Celtic languages, which I hope to remedy someday.
btw, don't you mean Balkans- Cmacq might eventually get us to the Baltic, but not just yet
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