We're not assuming that we're 50 years down the road and there are already established laws about it. We're assuming everything else remains the same except a law is passed recognizing FULL HUMAN RIGHTS at the moment of conception as a means of criminalizing and banning abortion in the U.S.
So, imagine whatever context works... a challenge at the Supreme Court by a woman who was here for three months and her conception was DEFINITELY while she was in the U.S., or whatever.
Sorry if I seem to be changing the rules. I am asking for a logical reasoning as to why it should, or should not, confer benefits of citizenship if it confers recognition of complete human rights at the moment of conception. Rather than "well what I think they would do is.."
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