Indo-European + ? = Greek

[blitzkrieg80]

I agree with Kervanos, concerning the Kurgan hypothesis, which is very solid by linguistic evidence... archaeological evidence for the Anatolian theory is very subjective and totally illogical considering later migrations. it would be comparable to Puritan pilgrims sailing back to England with an impaired hippocampus.

nice discussion ppl, btw... love IE and non IE stuff... too bad so much can only be theory stupid unrecorded 'prehistory'

[keravnos]

Out of India is even better.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Out_of_india
A whole theory, which is DEAD AGAINST what the holliest of hindu texts, Rigveda
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Rigveda
Rigveda describes the descent from present day Afghanistan into Indus. Then other vedas speak for the drive further on to the Indus mouth burning the jungle forest to make way for cultivation.

(Early Aryans used Soma/Haoma,
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Soma
an ephedra based drink, much like EB's timeline Haomavarga (Haoma drinkers) Saka). This plant, does NOT grow in India, yet the first Aryans used it.

The plant is described as growing in the mountains (giristha, cf. Orestes), with long stalks, and of yellow or tawny (hari) colour. The drink is prepared by priests pounding the stalks with stones, an occupation that creates tapas (literally "heat"). The juice so gathered is mixed with other ingredients (including milk) before it is drunk.

Later on, it became unavailable, as Indoaryans moved towards the east.

Later, knowledge of the plant was lost altogether, and Indian ritual reflects this, in expiatory prayers apologizing to the gods for the use of a substitute plant (e.g. rhubarb) because Soma had become unavailable.

Even the movement of west to East is shown clearly at the Vedas, yet there are people who suggest IndoIranians went the other way. There is a great documentary which describes that process, whose name I really can't remember ATM.

[gamegeek2]

I agree with the Kurgan hypothesis, too, even though I'm no linguist

[Ibrahim]

on thye note concerning IE, is it possible to establish which gourp of languages are most closely related to IE (as in, most direct decendants)?

that would be quite interesting

[Anastasios Helios]

I believe that it is Baltic or Slavic...as they would have traveled the smallest distance from the hypothetical Indo-European homeland...

[Zeibek]

I believe that it is Baltic or Slavic...as they would have traveled the smallest distance from the hypothetical Indo-European homeland...

(Sorry about the double post!)

Yes, I think that Lithuanian has the most archaisms of any living Indo-European language, but I don't think that it is directly related to the close proximity of the PIE urheimat, but instead is more affected by the rule of periphery: innovations and loans are less likely to be adopted from others when your neighbours are scarce and you yourself are isolated.

[Ibrahim]

(Sorry about the double post!)

Yes, I think that Lithuanian has the most archaisms of any living Indo-European language, but I don't think that it is directly related to the close proximity of the PIE urheimat, but instead is more affected by the rule of periphery: innovations and loans are less likely to be adopted from others when your neighbours are scarce and you yourself are isolated.

I see. well, I go look at it:

EDIT: nice language. can anyone explain though how the inverted a is pronunced (th IPA symbol)?