correction on hebrew translation

**Hooahguy** · 11-25-2008, 21:09

oh, now i get it. i will provide the scans on it ASAP.

**Hooahguy** · 11-26-2008, 13:11

well, here it is:
i underlined the words Beit Hamikdash in this pic i took of a english-hebrew Mishnah.

**gamegeek2** · 11-26-2008, 15:17

Yup, that's Beit HaMiqdash alright. Note that it's a Qup, not a Kap.

**Hooahguy** · 11-26-2008, 15:26

nope. its a kuf, like as you would say mickey

**Sir_Lysander** · 11-27-2008, 00:47

Originally Posted by gamegeek2

OK, that makes sense Shigawire.

@hooahguy, in modern Hebrew the letters quph/kuf are pronounced the same, as /k/, so you're right, 'k' would be the correct transliteration for modern Hebrew. However, we need Ancient Hebrew, and Shigawire's advice.

Question: Is the word for "house" spelled with a Yud or not? If so, it should be "beit", if not, "bet". That's just my advice, though.

Except, Shigawire mentions the Shin, not the Kuf or Kaf.

Originally Posted by gamegeek2

Yup, that's Beit HaMiqdash alright. Note that it's a Qup, not a Kap.

Originally Posted by hooahguy

nope. its a kuf, like as you would say mickey

Somewhere about 10 years ago or so (no more than 15) is when I started seeing any use of a "q" in Hebrew transliteration. No transliterated text I have seen published before then uses it. I also remember sitting in Hebrew School, and having Cantor Asher reminding us "There is no 'Q' in Hebrew."

Unfortunately, I've never been able to discover exactly when, and exactly why, "modern" transliteration began using the Q. It makes no sense to me, as the few I have seen still seem to use a K when spelling Kaddish - yet that would "violate" the rule of using a Q.

**gamegeek2** · 11-27-2008, 00:57

it does make the /k/ sound, and it never makes the /kw/ sound, but it's different from the Kap, which comes from Aramaic K, but the Kuf/Quf comes from the Aramic Q. They make the same sound, but they're different letters. Like C and K in English (with exceptions in front of i, e, and y for 'C'). Originially they were different sounds, but they have evolved to be the same. I'm fairly sure that they would have been different in Ancient Hebrew (which wouldn't have had the thousand years or so of European influence that Modern Hebrew has). Nowadays, there is no difference between the letters, but they are still different letters, and should be translated as such. Why do you think us EB people complain about 'Themistokles' being written as 'Themistocles' in English? It's the same idea.