Originally Posted by
The Persian Cataphract
This is a question which isn't supposed to be easily answered due to the inherent "Persian-ness" of the Achaemenid empire; in its western reaches, around Caria and Hellespontine Phrygia, it was profoundly Hellenized, in the rough mid-section in the Near East, the tributaries retained their Jewish and Babylonian character. In the north-east, Iranian speaking horse-tribes hailed. There is no simple answer to this matter, and accordingly to history, it's not supposed to be something which can be easily answered. Historical outcome is that Armenia, ironically by an Iranian dynasty, became a distinct though related culture, cemented by Mashtots' invention of the Armenian script, while the Arsacids basically laid the foundation to what was to become a "medieval" Persia.
This is why we tend to use the loosely defined cultural phrase "Persianate society".
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