Quote Originally Posted by Subotan View Post
Why is Romainian so close to Latin, or even have any relationship at all, considering most of it was not under Roman rule for very long? You'd think something Slavic or Avar would be more dominant.
It mostly stems from the fact that Trajan didn't want another Decebalus-type incident, so after he conquered the region, he enslaved or relocated almost the entire population and replaced them with Roman settlers.