To answer you point by point Brenus,
Stalin acting in concordence with his own interests is to my mind cynical when it involves leaving the polish Home Army to bleed to death over two months because of post war considerations. You say the Polish in Warsaw were anti-communist, but this is only true to the extent that anyone who did not completly accept Soviet policy was anti-communist, and Stalin (and the Lublin commitee) had already made it clear that they foresaw the future boundaries of the USSR as being the 'Peace Line' agreed with Hitler in 1939. Its hard to see how a Polish resistance (aware of the NKVD's activites during the 1939-41 period in occupied eastern Poland and of course the Katyn forest) could be pro-soviet. However Stalin deliberately passed up an opportunity to end the war earlier by halting Rossokovsky on the Vistula (I'm refering to the september actions, not the earlier August offensive, which admittedly was halted by a German counterattack).
Of course everyone acted in their own self interest at the expense of their allies, but I dont think everyone took it to the level that Stalin did. Were Free French Communist Groups arrested, disarmed and placed in detention by the Western allies, as the Polish Home Army were? (Serious, not rhetorical question - I dont know anything about this subject).
I dont know anything either about the 2nd Armoured Div not being allowed to land on D-Day, but I believe that the plan didn't call for the commitment of an armoured division. Monty wanted tank brigades to push out of the british zone towards Falaise, and 2nd French armoured was a US formation (In the sense that the Canadians were a 'British' Formation - I'm refering purely to organisational details). Of course these are operational rather than political considerations, but French troops did land at Ouistreham on the 6th of June.
Did Roosevelt really plan to occupy France? Its not something I've ever heard anything about before - It theirs any good onlie sources I'd appreciate you pointing me towards them.
The point I'm trying to make is that Stalin, whilst perhaps his appreciation of the situation was identical to Churchill and Roosevelt, the actions he took on the basis of this appreciation were certainly more ruthless than anything the Western allies would have considered.
Edit: It just occurs to me that a great counter point to everything I just wrote would be Mers - El - Kebir, a superb example of allies acting against the interest of their erstwhile ally. The only defence I could make is that the French Fleet was not actively fighting the Germans, (as the Home Army abandoned by Stalin was) and could potentially prove an asset to them, although this is a pretty weak argument considering what eventually happened at Toulon.
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