
Originally Posted by
Louis VI the Fat
No, but we did declare war on Germany to protect Poland. Rightfully or wrongfully, or forced by circumstance, in the end, we picked one of the two 1939 invaders of Poland for an ally, and sold out Poland to him.
The 'what if' here, is there a possibility that we would've sided with Germany against those who occupied Poland? It is, after all, what we did do after, say, 1949. What was the earliest date possible? Could it have been done in 1944, at the possible prize of giving Poland to Germany instead of to Russia?
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