Prima facie, I disagree and would suggest that the Bible (and the judeo-christian morality it embodies) have had a significant influence on Western Law. How do you disprove that claim?
"The only way that has ever been discovered to have a lot of people cooperate together voluntarily is through the free market. And that's why it's so essential to preserving individual freedom.” -- Milton Friedman
"The urge to save humanity is almost always a false front for the urge to rule." -- H. L. Mencken
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