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  1. #1
    The Black Senior Member Papewaio's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    What year did slavery cease in Europe?

    Not including non-lawful events like sex trade which is still happening. Just which century it ceased.
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    Member Centurion1's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Papewaio View Post
    What year did slavery cease in Europe?

    Not including non-lawful events like sex trade which is still happening. Just which century it ceased.
    What country did you want. If you weren't aware Europe is comprised of quite a few nations....

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    master of the pwniverse Member Fragony's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Papewaio View Post
    What year did slavery cease in Europe?

    Not including non-lawful events like sex trade which is still happening. Just which century it ceased.
    There has never been any slavery in Europe

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    Member Centurion1's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Fragony View Post
    There has never been any slavery in Europe
    That would be wrong.

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    master of the pwniverse Member Fragony's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Centurion1 View Post
    That would be wrong.
    No, not unlesss you add 19th century Russia to Europe, enslaved by is a different matter. Up to 1920 then at least, Belgian Congo

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    Shadow Senior Member Kagemusha's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    I bet slavery ended about the same time as European tribes turned into a christianity. So starting from "Romans" at 4th century and ending to Vikings at 12th century and Finnic tribes on 13th century.Europe was converted and mass slavery abolished. A new form of slavery aka plantasion slavery was developed in 15th century and abolished at 19th century.
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    Member Centurion1's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Kagemusha View Post
    I bet slavery ended about the same time as European tribes turned into a christianity. So starting from "Romans" at 4th century and ending to Vikings at 12th century and Finnic tribes on 13th century.Europe was converted and mass slavery abolished. A new form of slavery aka plantasion slavery was developed in 15th century and abolished at 19th century.
    Um not exactly.

    Serfdom and feudalism just replaced it. It was cheaper and more productive than slavery.

    EDIT: Fragony is a perfect example of the ability of an internet denizen simply not admitting when they are wrong. The presence of facts mean nothing.
    Last edited by Centurion1; 07-30-2011 at 10:29.

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    master of the pwniverse Member Fragony's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Centurion1 View Post
    Um not exactly.

    Serfdom and feudalism just replaced it. It was cheaper and more productive than slavery.

    EDIT: Fragony is a perfect example of the ability of an internet denizen simply not admitting when they are wrong. The presence of facts mean nothing.
    Slavery is a class system of being directly owned by another person, if you can show me what facts I shouldn't be ignorant about please do. Even in serfdom the landlord didn't own the worker, in theory they were free to leave when they pleased.

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    A very, very Senior Member Adrian II's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Personal serfdom was virtual slavery. In his drive to break with feudalism Napoleon abolished it in most of Europe except Russia and Austria. The Austrian Empire abolished it in 1848, the Russian Empire in 1861. The Brits maintained serf tenure in various forms until 1922, but serf tenure wasn't personal serfdom.

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    Tuba Son Member Subotan's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Fragony View Post
    There has never been any slavery in Europe
    http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Slavery_in_medieval_Europe

    Slavery in early medieval Europe was relatively common. It was widespread at the end of antiquity... Slavery declined in the Middle Ages in most parts of Europe as serfdom slowly rose, but it never completely disappeared.
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    Member Centurion1's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Subotan View Post
    Then let us heap unto that everything from the fall of the Roman Empire and before............. I am pretty sure Europa is still Europe, neh?

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    Last edited by Centurion1; 08-01-2011 at 04:23.

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    master of the pwniverse Member Fragony's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Subotan View Post
    If you want it to be, 19th century serfdom in Russia was basically the last of what is close to slavery in Europe. Poor working conditions, all times. But not real slavery, where someone is your property by law
    Last edited by Fragony; 07-30-2011 at 10:28.

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    Voluntary Suspension Voluntary Suspension Philippus Flavius Homovallumus's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Papewaio View Post
    What year did slavery cease in Europe?

    Not including non-lawful events like sex trade which is still happening. Just which century it ceased.
    Slavery, as practiced in the colonies, was never practiced in Europe, ever. As soon as you brought a Black slave to England, he legally ceased to be a slave, there was simply no way you could own another human being in English law, and the same was basically true for the rest of Europe.

    Quote Originally Posted by Subotan View Post
    This was never the kind of slavery practiced in the Colonies during the Renaissance and Enlightenment, which was the point I was making to Strike. slavery in medieval Europe was a state usually aquired either through debt or war. In both cases it was a form of indenture which impled a type of weakness on the part of the slave, a French slave and an Enlish slave would be the same, just as a French Freeman and an English Freeman would be.

    It is a completely different concept to Black = Slave.
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    Master of useless knowledge Senior Member Kitten Shooting Champion, Eskiv Champion Ironside's Avatar
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    Default Re: why did the west commit to multiculturalism?

    Quote Originally Posted by Papewaio View Post
    What year did slavery cease in Europe?

    Not including non-lawful events like sex trade which is still happening. Just which century it ceased.
    Depends on how you define slavery. Forbidding it? Mostly during the 1800:s. Having own slaves inside the country outside colony slave trade? Forbidden much, much earlier in most cases.

    Forbidding thralldom and serfs? Depends on the country.

    Roughly, slaves were common before 1100 but started to disappear rapidly during the 1100s to be replaced by serfs in most cases. Christianity was a big driving force in forbidding it.

    Serfdom lasted very different times though, Sweden forbid it in the 1300s (well serfdom never appeared here and thraldom is like a mix of slavery and serfdom, but it was formally forbidden 1343), while most of the continent it lasted to the 1700s and even longer in Russia.
    Europeans involved in slave trade has always been active though, the plague came to the Islamic world through a Geonoan slave trader boat for example.
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