No the problem is that rule (3) and rule (4) require logical equivalence of F and H and it is not possible to prove this in the general case (i.e. using only the conditions/propositions given for any F, E, or H).
But it is perfectly possible there exist two propositions F, and H such that F -> H && H -> F:
Consider many of the basic examples of boolean algebra:
F: !A || (B && A)
H: !A || B
H <-> F
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