
Originally Posted by
Sasaki Kojiro
Why would the seat belt situation have to be like that?
Because that would make it a direct analogy:

Originally Posted by
Sasaki Kojiro
Why are these differences relevant?
There no law enforcing the use of condoms. There are several laws enforcing the use of seat belts. Surely that makes the legal arguments for enforcing the provision of condoms and seat belts quite different?
I have a question (not rhetorical): In the US, does the government legally require a medical institution to provide any other form of 'treatment'? To be clear, I'm not talking about life saving or health restoring treatments, I'm talking about preventative treatments such as vaccines.
Edit: clarifying question above
Bookmarks