I don't get your objection. Why shouldn't P(A) ≥ P(A ∧ B) for any choice of A and B?
I don't get your objection. Why shouldn't P(A) ≥ P(A ∧ B) for any choice of A and B?
Last edited by Viking; 10-08-2016 at 22:18.
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[1 - exp(i*2π)]^-1
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