Quote Originally Posted by Brenus View Post
"Comte who was considered a hereditory landowner who held his feudal title by right of birth (in this period)." Nope. The land belongs to the King at these times (or the Suzerain) who delegated it to his vassal. Tittle and land (tittle going with the land, not reverse) could be withdraw if felony.
"John Lackland provided the excuse when, in 1200, he 'abducted' and married (30 August) the fiancé, Isabelle d'Angoulême, of Hugh 'le Brun', son of the comte de la Marche. John I then rejected a summons to appear (as duc d'Aquitaine) before King Philippe II, technically his suzerain. In 1202, John was declared 'a felon' and Philippe II seized Anjou, Brittany, Maine, Normandy, and Touraine. "
in http://www.xenophongroup.com/montjoie/bouvines.htm

https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=4pK8SrkJUDs
"King of England refuses to submit to King of France, King of France declares War."

That particular example is terrible because it's a King as vassal to another King, and it's two Kings who want each other's land.