Why is There Death and Suffering if God is all Loving

[total relism]

Thanks for reading my posts and giving feedback.

You are basically saying that:
1. God's plans are sometimes not perfect.
2. God is liable to change his laws depending on the time of application.

No to the first, yes to the second. He works from the situation people are in. So before the fall he made only two laws for man, have sex and eat, one negative, dont eat of a single tree. With noah and the survivors, another, with Moses and Israelite in the land of Canaan surrounded by Canaanites, another etc

It is not about US applying standards, it is about GOD using double standards. At certain time killing was OK, at others - not that much.

All the time murder is wrong, killing is sometimes. If we make that distinction, than the supposed contradiction disapers.
https://forums.totalwar.org/vb/showt...s-to-the-Bible

Here's what Bible says:

Thou shalt not bow down thyself unto them, nor serve them: for I the LORD thy God am a jealous God, visiting the iniquity of the fathers upon the children unto the third and fourth generation of them that hate me

Do show me where "continuing fathers sins" is mentioned. One doesn't have to continue anything. If your great-grandfather hated God, the latter will visit his anger upon you no matter what you think.

Just don't start the context thing.

Before we get to the passage I think you could not make the case from the bible. Think of Abraham, he was a pagan worshiping Canaanite, jethro his father in law, same thing, accepted that day he converted. The egyptians were pagans who converted and follow god. Rahab and her family at jericho, Ruth and naomi, among others. Over and over from the books of moses we have examples of people who converted to god and he did not punish them for their fathers sins. As the same book [also see Ezekiel 18:20] Deuteronomy says

Fathers shall not be put to death for their children, nor children put to death for their fathers; each is to die for his own sin.
Deut. 24:16

I used the example from 1 Samuel 15 with the amalakites. They were punished for the sins of their fathers. yet they were the ones doing and continuing the sins their fathers committed, the very same sins of their fathers.


The mistake is to try and take any one passage from the bible and than create a theology from it instead of the bible as a whole. God never had DT 5.9 [the verse you quote] in his bible. Chapters and verses are man made thousands of years later. That is why the whole bible must be considered. This is why i think Christians have so many denominations. They try and build theology from man made verses or chapters alone. Calvinism is a great example imo.

A contradiction. How can a spirit have an image? Image of an object or a person is always something visible. Being in visible form a human must by default have an image of a man or a woman.

Its a good question I will look it up from a study i did on hebrews and Jesus being the image of god. But from the greek/hebrew the word does not mean physical, or at least does not have to. But relationship. I did a quick google search on your question from christian sources

https://answersingenesis.org/genesis...-image-of-god/
https://creation.com/made-in-the-image-of-god

God does appear in human form many times in the ot and nt of course as well.