@ Montmorency
You seem to be doubling down on your initial perspective.
My post does not need any context, though it does have. In particular this from PHF:
and the part I quoted from ACIN:I reject any suggestion this is a "privilege" because that suggests I was given something I don't deserve
The question that interested me was this: does the existence of a disprivileged group necessarily create benefits for the non-disprivileged group?I'm with Monty, it seems that you fully understand the racist implications of modern conservatism but you understand that to acknowledge that reality is a threat to your socio-economic status.
The society acting as the control for the analysis of this question is a society where the disprivileged group is not present, but the reason for why the disprivileged group is not present is completely irrelevant.
If we take the specific case of the US, there could be no African-Americans there because the slave trade to the US never happened. There could be no "native" Americans in the US because no people had colonized the Americas prior to the arrival of Europeans. In another relevant scenario, it could be that both groups are present in the country, but neither are disprivileged because the US has transformed into a more utopian version of itself.
But again, the history leading up to the society used as a control is not relevant for this particular analysis; so it is of no interest to imagine specific scenarios.
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