If the Romans came up against the Macedonian phalanx in the battles of Cynosphelae, Pydna, and many others, then how could the Greeks have abandoned the phalanx? Either this Goldworthy is smoking something strange(as Urnamma suggests), or he is referring to the abandonment of the Classical phalanx, not the Macedonian one. However, if he claims that mercenaries and cavalry are used more then I doubt he is simply misunderstood, as Alexander and his successors used the phalanx as their main battle formation continually from the 4th to the 1st centuries BC.
- Panda
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