Hello, DivinusOriginally Posted by Divinus Arma
You don't like Michael Jordan?![]()
Actually it doesn't. As found in the 1995: United States v. Lopez and upheld in 2000: United States v. Morrison. a Judicial test was implemented. Regardless, if you are really up in arms about this, the case that should really get your ire is the 1971 Perez v. United States. This is where intrastate transactions formally fell under Commerce Clause applicabiltiy.The greatest issue of the v. Raich case was indeed states rights.
With this finding, the supremacy clause and commerce clause jointly put an end to all State Power and Rights. Here is how:
Everything affects intrastate commerce as the Supreme Court now defines it.
If you claim any kind of fealty to judicial conservatism you must justify why a base majoritarianism should not hold sway. Assuming you accept the Supremacy Clause: this applies even if the majority is on a Federal level.
Bookmarks