Perhaps I'm oversimplifying this but, before the major hostilities commenced with the invasion of Poland, hadn't the German government already pretty much wiped their collective butts with the treaty and gotten away with it? If so, this justification for war is kinda lost since they had already gotten out from under many of the treaty's impositions de facto.
EDIT: Oops, looks like Red already beat me to this line of thought.![]()
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