Unfair treaty? Nations attacked without reasons, loosing 1,600,000 men (for the French) between 17 and 40 years old, industries destroyed, families completely destroyed (one family in Brittany lost all the males, at this period no law to keep at least one male at home) wanted retribution. The aggressors (Austria included) had to pay for their aggression. Remember why it started?
By the Peace of Frankfurt (1871), France had to pay $ 1 billion in gold within 3 years, and to give Alsace and Lorraine (except Belfort). France had not only suffered a humiliating, economically devastating defeat, Bismarck unlike in the case of Austria in 1966 now had pushed through harsh conditions. After the PROCLAMATION OF THE GERMAN EMPIRE on Jan. 2nd 1871 in the mirror hall in Versailles, an act intended to again humiliate the French
I can accept the fact that the Treaty was harsh (no more than the one inflicted by the new Germany on France after 1871, or by the Allies on France after 1815, regime change, occupation, etc) but unfair, no. Beside, as stated in other intervention, it was re-negotiated. Germany had to pay $ 6.6 billion (6 times more than what the French had to pay). I don’t thing it was so harsh, if you compare the devastations inflicted during the two wars (1870, 1914-1918)…
Yes, the after war period was hard for Germany, but it wasn’t so good for France, UK, US neither…
The mistake was the Treaty didn’t include a part for reconstruction.
The desire of revenge came because the Germans refuse to recognise they started the war (technically, they were right, but they declared war on France and invaded neutral Belgium) and denied the fact they lost battles on the field. In 1918, it was the armistice which stopped the Allies armies to cross the borders, not the German army. Because no fights happened in Germany proper, the myth of the knife in the back (because rebellion in the Navy and the army) took place.
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