Was WW2 in Europe Justified?

[Slyspy]

Another valuable contribution by Slyspy. I see this time you even managed to avoid your normal immature namecalling - somewhat. Of course, your imagination has gotten the better of you, as usual.

Show me my "normal immature name calling". IIRC correctly the last time I used that term about you was when you were praising the famed Prussian military leadership and disassociating it from the Nazi regime. The separation was false then and it is false in this instance too.

The terms of Versaille may have helped the rise of the Nazi party to power but the war was not inevitable unless you factor in Adolf Hitler. Neither France nor Britain wanted war and they were not prepared for it. In fact appeasement was still the order of the day despite gradual rearmament - communism was regarded as the greater threat. Negotiations for the return of Prussia would probably have left the onus on Poland to surrender her new lands. However Hitler, deciding that Britain and France would not act, went for war and conquest instead. The fall of Czechoslovakia had heralded the doom of Poland and the plunging of the world into war.

Even if Versaille did justify the occupation of the Sudentenland and reclaimation of Prussia then it does not justify the annexation of those nations involved (or the splitting of Poland with the Soviets). Neither does it justify the kind of regime that operated in those occupied lands. Neither does it justify the conquest of Norway, Denmark, The Netherlands, Belgium or Luxembourg. These were all countries invaded by your much vaunted Prussian officers on behalf of a murderous Austrian dictator.

In reply to Zalmoxis: There is no need to dislike Poland or Poles. In fact I rather feel sorry for them. However you are right in that the evils of Hitler cannot be separated for his foreign policy. That policy IS one of his evils.