Rape

[Duke John]

It wouldn't matter if the two kids were 15, and then one turned 16 say a week later, because at the date of the crime, the person would still have been 15.

I meant that what if 2 15-year olds had sex. According to the US law it would be up to the parents what to do with it. And 6 months later the 2 still have sex, but one is now 16 and the other still 15, so a new "crime". Would it then suddenly become rape because of Websters' definition: "if a person over the legal age of consent has intercourse with someone under the legal age of consent, it is by default, statutory rape"? Or is this a law that is commonly put aside in normal cases (teens just having sex) but to have something to fall back on when foul play is suspected as you wrote?