Because the English language was standardized by old, rich, white men, clearly they would create a language partial to their gender.


Oh dear, that was just too precious... "standardized by old, rich, white men....". Sorry to break it to you, love, but English was largely standarised in the Early Modern English period (mid 1400s - 1800) when there weren't many non-whites in Britain to complain about it. In fact it was most of the standardising was done by William Caxton (who, for the greater part of his life at least, wasn't old either - I will grant him being male though) and his printing press, that's why 'standard' English is the southern English variety (he was from Kent you see). Of course the King James bible and so on had something to do with it too.

However, language is something that is 'possessed' by everyone who uses it and consequently is a function of the people who do use it. So, seeing as the division of men to women is roughly equal they both have an equal influence on linguistic development. In fact, seeing as, in the past, it was mostly likely mothers who taught the children language, women would have had a disproportionately large influence on the development of the language.

Interestingly too, in old English, 'man' used to refer to all of mankind, then there was 'wife-man' (the development to woman is obvious) that referred to women only, and then a separate word again for the male gender that meant 'sword-man'. Subsequently the 'sword' prefix was dropped leaving us with what we have today.

The stuff about ladies is pretty silly too, what about gentlemen? They both hark from the same era, both are used quite rarely these days, both are used to convey politeness. None of this gender hierarchy bollocks she's epousing. Far from it in fact, 'lady' donotes nobility, the same level hierarchically as 'lord', a word no-one uses for men anymore, so if anything its use is asserting female status in society.

In conclusion, I bet she doesn't have a boyfriend.....