Has anyone actually provided information on why they believe the pronunciation of Greek has not changed? The most I have seen is this:
Not that it is a bad argument per se, but it is hard to swallow. Latin is perhaps the best example of what a church can do to a language.Eclessiastic psalms are the very same since dark ages so i assume that the ''change'' happened earlier.
Languages change - Shigawire's comments on palatalization in other threads being one of the best arguments. More so, modern Greek does not use pitch accents and itacism goes against the logic of spelling.
Latin and Greek have many similarities and for a number of reasons. They are very closely related. Also, the Romans added letters - not just altered spelling, but added letters - to accommodate Greek words and many aristocrats learned Greek at a very young age from Greek slaves or Greek educators. For example, Caesar's teacher was from Rhodes and was allowed to address the Senate and do so in Greek.So if a modern englishman cannot speak easily modern greek, why a roman, gaul, iberian, persian wouldnt alter the sounds and adjust them to their accent?
Now, these questions are a bit harder to answer. As to why the changes occur in consonants, palatalization seems to be the culprit. When it happened is much more difficult, but I am sure someone knows the answer to that.My questions are to you and if you want you reply. Why all greek populations speak D and B the same way if there was an alteration affecting only greece?
If thre was a general transformation on the pronounciation of those dipthongs when did it took place? Is there a theory why it happened?
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