Not necessarily. Wheelock says through the Ciceronian era, but I wouldn't say that is indicative of the era before - unless that is the meaning of "through" - as in, from earlier Latin through to the Ciceronian era up until Augustan changes.Originally Posted by Foot
Cicero is also fond of syncophe in verbs so I could see an extension of such a fondness to use the option of just -i rather than -ii. Unfortunately, Vox Latina doesn't seem to have anything on this particular subject, but there are other books I can take a look at next time I'm on campus. But also, as you said, nom. pl isn't the same as gen sin.![]()
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