Quote Originally Posted by Foot
Well as it takes place before cicero, then the single -i for the gen. sg. in nouns must have been the one in use, which would suggest current pronunciation to be correct. But then, this doesn't say anything about the nom. pl., which is what we are talking about, so the quote didn't actually help at all.

Foot
Not necessarily. Wheelock says through the Ciceronian era, but I wouldn't say that is indicative of the era before - unless that is the meaning of "through" - as in, from earlier Latin through to the Ciceronian era up until Augustan changes.

Cicero is also fond of syncophe in verbs so I could see an extension of such a fondness to use the option of just -i rather than -ii. Unfortunately, Vox Latina doesn't seem to have anything on this particular subject, but there are other books I can take a look at next time I'm on campus. But also, as you said, nom. pl isn't the same as gen sin.