That's debatable. There was some decent exploration done, possibly as far inland as Oklahoma. It could have led to the fact that there was land to the west being relatively common knowledge amongst fishermen of the British Isles before Columbus. It is possible and likely he heard of the land here from other sources before working on his own theories. I sometimes wonder if he never expected to find India, and only used that as a cover story to get funding for a land he suspected but couldn't find evidence of profitability for. For someone as well trained in navigation as he was, his calculations for the distance to Japan included a lot of elementary mistakes few navigators in that age would have made... but might gotten past the eye of others not so astute as they were greedy.Originally Posted by Furious Mental
Anyway there seems to have been a decent number of people in Europe who knew land was to the west, just most of them didn't think it was worth much anything. That probably dated back to the vikings. Columbus discovery wasn't really one of land; it was one of profit. THAT was what suddenly got Europe interested.
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