Results 1 to 30 of 40

Thread: Question about Brennos' interview

Hybrid View

Previous Post Previous Post   Next Post Next Post
  1. #1

    Default Re: Question about Brennos' interview

    Quote Originally Posted by Dargaron View Post
    So, would the proper way to use the term Celtic be similar to the proper use of the term "Semitic," to refer to a large group of related languages/peoples (depending on the context) that are more-or-less related to each other? So, no one would speak "Celtic," they would speak a Gallic, Brythonic, Goidilic, Celtiberian, Volcae etc language, which is part of a larger Celtic language family. It seems like splitting hairs, but it emphasizes the locality rather than just painting with a wide brush of "Celtic."
    Another way to look at it is in terms of it's meaningless within ancient writing. By which I mean, the term Celt (like Gaul) is simply a cover-all term. The nearest modern day example (at least that I feel comfortable using) would be 'Asian'. In certain contexts it can be a pejorative, and it is wide ranging in its use. Imagine some civilisation in a couple of thousand years from now, picking through the remnants of a mostly lost/destroyed literature and trying to piece together the 'Asian' language, orthe original homeland of these 'Asian' people. Perhaps we might have some mythical 'Asian' Kingdom or hegemony developed as a background for this 'peoples'/civilisation.

    In short; there are a lot of myths and beliefs around the idea of Celticism and most of these have no real bearing in contemporary historical data or archaeological data.
    Last edited by Gaius Sempronius Gracchus; 06-30-2013 at 22:46.

Bookmarks

Posting Permissions

  • You may not post new threads
  • You may not post replies
  • You may not post attachments
  • You may not edit your posts
  •  
Single Sign On provided by vBSSO