
Originally Posted by
Craterus
Can anyone actually explain this? (Sorry to derail the thread, but the problem has been bothering me for some time.)
Sexual partners is the easiest way to do this but really it's a question of averages. How can women have a higher (or lower, I forget what the actual figure is) number of average sexual partners than men? Assuming the two populations are equal and same-sex intercourse isn't recorded, every instance of sexual intercourse would add to the average for both sexes, even if it is only a minority of women sleeping with most of the men? Does anyone understand the point I am (poorly) trying to make?
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