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Thread: Phoenecian phonology and the S(h)afot S(h)oftim biQart-Hadasht

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  1. #1

    Default Re: Phoenecian phonology and the S(h)afot S(h)oftim biQart-Hadasht

    So, a related question:

    Is the Qart-Hadastei office best transliterated "sophet," or "sopet?" I have seen it spelled both ways...

  2. #2

    Default Re: Phoenecian phonology and the S(h)afot S(h)oftim biQart-Hadasht

    Quote Originally Posted by Alkibiades14 View Post
    So, a related question:

    Is the Qart-Hadastei office best transliterated "sophet," or "sopet?" I have seen it spelled both ways...
    I'll have to go back to the texts for what the greatest scholars on the language have done, but that'll be a toughie. I'm way more busy now than when you first brought up your questions. The main issue I would guess lies in what I bolded in your quote. If you asked me, I would say the best transliteration is the one that is consistent. So if you consistently use p for [p] then that's fine. If you consistently use ph for [p] then that's fine, too (I don't see why you would, though). I've mostly seen ph used for [f] (as in English telephone). If [p] is the sound (as in Peter), where or why did you conceive of sophet?
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