Maybe we have a language barrier somehow, but for me, the first three do not show any difference on whether salvation would be an event or a process.
The last three though, I will grant.
How far this is down to mistranslation I cannot say - the poverty of language means that not each and every language may be able to make a direct translation.
I am not aware of what was said in the original language, if you know we might be able to see whether the tense used was somehow ambiguous - ie not indicating whether salvation was immediate or ongoing.
In such cases, the most honest thing to do would be to analyse the meaning from the context provided elsewhere in the source - in this cause the particular Epistle, followed by the Pauline Epistles more generally.
I trust that that is what the Reformationist translators did, hence the bias in the KJV. But it is also worth noting that these examples are passing references to the inferred established doctrines - not the basis of the doctrines themselves (since naturally, debates on such matter always address the original language).
Thank you though for providing the examples, they make the basis for meaningful debate.![]()
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