Are you claiming these etymologies to be true, or is this just conjecture? Several are almost certainly completely false, and the rest seem dubious.Fascinating. I add:
war>crīgā(gave german 'krieg' and danish 'krig')
(gave -possibly- 'cri' and 'crier', French "shout", noun and verb)
fight>skermō(gave the word 'skirmish')
die>dhewə (gave Deyja(old norse))
(and this word Deyja -possibly- gave 'déjà', French "already")
kill>colḗjō (nothing to explain here)
(gave -possibly- colère, French "anger")
destroy>dheukō (here neither...)
(gave -possibly- dragon, if you pronounce the "h" like in German)
I don't get this question. Seeing as Irish is Q-Celtic, the proto-celtic labiovelar became a plain velar sound, rather than a labial sound, as in Gaulish and Brythonic. So there was never a P-shift in Goidelic.For example on Goidelic, which is indeed a form of Celt, what date would one impose for a P-shift?
This, presumably, accounts for the difference between the Ancient Greek hippos and the Latin equus? It is interesting that the labiovelar stop>labial stop shift seemingly occurred in what appeared to be separate IE families. I had always believed this to be unique to P-Celtic, but after a little research it also appears to have happened in Oscan as well as Greek.Linear B Greek has the Kw sound intact, in Ancient Greek it's become P.
As a side note, how exactly do you reconstruct the syntax and morphology of proto-gemanic? (I assume that this is what is used for the Sweboz) Is it just a case of making educated guesses based on the current syntax in Germanic languages? Was there even a fixed word order? (SOV would have been my guess)
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