Why is Romainian so close to Latin, or even have any relationship at all, considering most of it was not under Roman rule for very long? You'd think something Slavic or Avar would be more dominant.
Why is Romainian so close to Latin, or even have any relationship at all, considering most of it was not under Roman rule for very long? You'd think something Slavic or Avar would be more dominant.
Couple that with the relative inaccessibility of the region's heartlands to foreign influence due to mountain chains, the danube, and so on, and you have the reason why Romanian preserved (vulgar) Latin almost wholesale, except for phonetic changes. On the other hand the early Italian, Spanish, and French dialects of Latin were greatly influenced not only by Germanic lexicon, but also by the native languages that outlasted the Romaioi.
If you ask me, it would've been much easier if everyone stuck with Kione. Then we wouldn't have all these bastard offspring of early Germanic and mutated Greek.
Si has verbas intellegis, barbarum foetidum es.
Ωστόσο, εάν μπορείτε να το κατανοήσουμε αυτό, τότε μπορεί να μην έχει να σε σκοτώσει.
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