By making the case that the UK with a Christian majority country in the first half of the 20th century was not draconian, yes he was indeed making a counterpoint. But the second statement of including an atheistic country that was draconian isn't a counterpoint to the statement that Christians would implement draconian laws, it just counters the statement that only in Christian countries would draconian laws occur. So unless he was countering that statement (which I do not recall being said but I may be wrong there), then I must assume the only reason he tacked on that point was to simply put blame on atheists as well.
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