this will take some time to process.... but if I'm reading it right, wouldn't it mean that Indo-Iranian languages are the closest to the Greek Branch? didn't know ancient Dorian was a seperate language from classical Greek, or do I misunderstand?
I will need a source for that bolded part. you're half right about the rest.been augmented by the Persian-hate displayed by Muhammad himself and his early followers. Most notably Omar and his ilk who conquered Persia and prohibited the Persian language.
because I don't recall it being banned by anybody in this era as a spoken (or even written) language. I do recall that in the Omayyad period, it was ordered that the various provinces were to cease taking records in local languages, and to use only Arabic (in keeping with their heavily pro-Arabic position, and to simplify administration). prior to that point, Persian was an official language of the Empire (along with Arabic, Aramaic, Coptic, and Greek-depending on province. wierd.)
i.e. It would not make sense for Persian to be outlawed during this period, yet still use it for administration.
yeah, I'm just gonna need the source for this last sentence-bold part especially. the rest of the post I don't see a problem with.
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