Quote Originally Posted by HoreTore View Post
Uhm....

The arab world with multiple women and India with multiple men should get you started.
I shall repeat myself from post 18 viz:

At no time in history has "marriage" meant anything other than "one man, one woman" even in cultures that allowed Polygamy the man contracted separate marriages with each wife and could dissolve each contract separately.

I will not claim to be an expert on all marriage law across time, but no culture I have studied allows for "marriage" between two people of the same gender - including the Christian cultures which allowed explicitly sexual same-gender unions.

This is why American marriage-law is so vague, it assumes that the gender question is not up for debate because it would not have occurred to American jurists 200 years ago that two men might even want to get married.

If you're going to respond to my question you might want to, I don't know, actually read my posts?

There's nothing specifically banning a Christian from having multiple wives by the way, that's a "secular" hang-up or Roman Law.

Quote Originally Posted by rvg View Post
Irrelevant, as those plural marriages were still heterosexual.
They aren't plural marriages, they are simultaneous marriages.

Why is this such a hard point for people to grasp?