Somebody brought up 1 Joh. 5:7 and it is a well known verse to use supporting Trinitarianism.
Historic? Name one surviving complete copy of the Bible or a NT document from around the time of Arian. Do we even know all the contenders? Besides, this is a debate in its own right - Bible infallibility one which I would love to join.
But let this be my point; The move from Subordinationism to Trinitarianism is very subtle. There is no need to do substantial editing and since the beginning of the use of the method eclecticism, it shows that there are differences between the fragments existing of the traditional canon (the one we have to day). Either there has been a purposeful editing or the translators weren't so concerned with the preservation of the original text.
I think you missed my point. You compared I AM from the old Testament with the use of I AM in the New Testament saying they are the same. I said - no, they are different. You can't quote OT and its use of I AM and put it next to the use of I AM in the NT - and declare; See, it is the same. That would be completely misguided Bible literalism.I am not educated in other languages, but the wikipedia page says that "ego eimi" is translated as "I am" in several places throughout the Bible, including the New Testament, citing the example of John 9:8. This part seemed particularly relevant:
This would appear to suggest that the KJV makes the correct translation.
Wikipedia is not considered to be a good source of reference in any scientific discipline.
Yet Christ is begotten and can therefore not be the one which is discussed here.The theme would seem to be one of self-existence or being unbegotten and eternal, which I think the KJV captures nicely.
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