The rest of the paragraph you quoted is basically my response to your point here.
Yes but your hypothetical situation didn't include the fact that the goverment created the criminal that robbed the store...
It seems fairly logical to me, if you go to war with a country and then occupy it, then casulties caused resisting this occupation are directly the fault of the occupiers. There would be no force resisting the occupiers if the occupiers weren't there, thus the harm they cause is the direct fault of the occupiers.
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