http://www.fourmilab.ch/documents/IQ/1950-2050/
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/IQ_and_...lth_of_Nations
and if different "races" have indeed developed inequally in such a way that it can account for 40 points, what would be the reason for lets say hand-eye coordination or spatial coordination to develop so radically different?
and how can the difference between america and for instance germany be explained, many descendents of the germans live in america, many descendants of countries who score much higher on the test. is this because america is ethnically mixed and all this mixing results in an average of 98. or is it because they have so rapidly evolved (in the wrong direction)?
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Race_an...e#Flynn_effect
and when IQ can rise so fast in only 80 years, how can it possibly be evolutional?
Bookmarks