This statement is correct, the classical authors (as well as many modern) made a distinction between the two peoples based on language and culture, not on region.Originally Posted by Phalanx300
But in this case we are talking of Romans and from what I have read Germani was not used as a geographic term. The first author who possibly recognized the term "Germani" was Poseidonius, then clearly Sallust when speaking of the Spartacus revolt. The Roman authors did not use Germani as a geographical qualifier. This is what was written which prompted me to respond:Originally Posted by paullus
https://forums.totalwar.org/vb/showt...=1#post2444499Originally Posted by cmacq
https://forums.totalwar.org/vb/showt...=1#post2489854Originally Posted by Power2the1
The statements that were made above were saying that "Germani"/Germanic was a geographical term, and as I pointed out in these posts:
https://forums.totalwar.org/vb/showt...=1#post2492033
https://forums.totalwar.org/vb/showt...=1#post2493091
https://forums.totalwar.org/vb/showt...=1#post2494704
https://forums.totalwar.org/vb/showt...=1#post2496601
Germani was not a geographical qualifier as also pointed out by Dobesch, Drinkwater and Liebeschuetz.
For the most part I agree with this, taking into consideration that there were Germanic speaking peoples prior to the arrival of the Suebi and Ubii.Originally Posted by cmacq
Find me a classical Greek or Latin text that says that the term Germani actually means a geographical qualifier. Germania is the geographic term, Germani is the people who the Romans referred to as being a non-Celtic people. From reading Tacitus you can tell that he was using language and culture as the basis for the term Germani.Originally Posted by cmacq
Caesar does make a "Belgae vs. Celt" in this case. Caesar from book 2,4 of the Gallic war-"This is what I discovered. Most of the Belgae were of German origin; they had crossed the Rhine long ago, driven out the Gauls they found living there and settled in that part of Gaul because its soil was fertile". He is distinguishing between Gauls and Belgae(which he also does at the beginning stating " In language, customs and laws these three peoples are quite distinct".). In book 2,4 Caesar learns that most of the Belgae are of German origin, but he continues to call them Belgae. Yet if you look at the West Bank Germans, he calls them Germans. In book 6,32 Caesar says "The Segni and Condrusi, who live between the Eborones and the Treveri but are of German origin and so count as Germans,..". Why would he persist in calling the Belgae who are "mostly of German origin" Belgae, yet differentiate with the West bank Germans? If Germani was a geographical term, then why isn't the Volcae Tectosages or the Boii considered Germani?Originally Posted by cmacq
Also another factor to consider is Caesar's chapter 6 "to describe the customs of the Gauls and the Germans, and the differences between the two nations". Also the Ubii who have adopted Gallic customs, these go to show it's simply not a geographical term.
Bookmarks