Still, the difference between one and more than one is obvious while between "few" and "many" is vague. Like if you have three children - for Uzbeks it would be few, for Ukrainians (at present) - many. Thus, using such terms should be very limited for the sake of accuracy in debates on philosophy.
All sciences can be roughly divided into those that study human and groups of humans aka societies (those are humanities) and those that study the world around the human (natural sciences). Some sciences thrive as a case of overlapping (technical sciences in the broad sense - those that explain how humans can profit by knowing what's going on around them, e.g. pharmaceutics, agronomy, engineering). Philosophy fits neither category as it aims to expose the most general laws which rule the world, the society and the mind. Trying to study everything results in discovering nothing. Practical application equals zero. Hence, pseudoscience.
Having been teaching the history of English for 5 years I know what were Old English and Middle English like. In the former the number of irregular verbs (they were strong verbs back then) was much greater that it is now, with the course of time a significant part of them turned into what is now regular verbs (weak verbs back then) because of the general tendency towards analytization which has become increasingly stronger since V century a.d. Some of such changes were indeed based on analogy. At the same time some weak verbs (much fewer in number) became strong. In some cases the process is still going on (like double forms of learnt/learned, dreamt/dreamed). Sometimes these differences are rather lexical than grammatical (hang can form its past simple and past participle in two ways which depends on the meaning of the verb - it is regular if it means to execute and irregular in other meanings). But this is polysemy - several meanings of one word. If we consider lie, then different meanings aren't related thus they are two different homonymous words (to be in horizontal position is irregular (lie - lay - lain) while not to tell the truth is regular (lie - lied - lied). The case of dive is clearly one of borderline cases when lanugage changes are in process and modern norm evidently allows two parallel forms, but they are not marked by any lexical or grammatical differences. Being aware of the language facts I was interested in speech facts, that is how extensive is the usage of dived vs dove. According to Montmorency, the former dominates, yet if I remember correctly, he is an American, so his observations may be accurate for the USA only (and perhaps only for the part of the country he lives in).
Tolkien was a most devout Catholic, but look at the world he has created.
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